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TheMathProf · 05-06-2008, 11:05 PM

I actually think the correct answer is C.

Only the definite integral is approximated using area.

The antiderivative, or the indefinite integral, represents a function whose derivative gives you 0. Any constant does this.

Think about it: the derivative of 5 is 0. The derivative of 17 is 0. The derivative of -2/3 is 0.

So when you're asked, what is the antiderivative of 0? You have to say, it's some constant.

Now the definite integral, on any interval [a, b], has to be 0, for the reasons mentioned by dylalien.

05-06-2008, 11:05 PM	#6
TheMathProf Member Join Date: May 2007 Posts: 428	I actually think the correct answer is C. Only the definite integral is approximated using area. The antiderivative, or the indefinite integral, represents a function whose derivative gives you 0. Any constant does this. Think about it: the derivative of 5 is 0. The derivative of 17 is 0. The derivative of -2/3 is 0. So when you're asked, what is the antiderivative of 0? You have to say, it's some constant. Now the definite integral, on any interval [a, b], has to be 0, for the reasons mentioned by dylalien.