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Old 05-08-2008, 11:36 PM   #16
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A noun ending in "s" and followed by a " ' " makes the noun possessive.

(I just made a few nuns smile in their graves).
toblin is offline  
Old 05-09-2008, 07:10 AM   #17
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I have a question that relates to this subject. When a singular noun ends in an "s" - does one add just an apostrophe, or is apostrophe followed by another "s" correct? I found *rules* stating one way on some websites, the other way on different websites. When I subbed in an English class last year, the book stated the latter. Is it James' book ... or James's book?

Is it "Mr. Kyriakis's house" and "the Kyariakis' house" (if the latter refers to the house owned by more than one Kyariakis family member)?

For the record, I am under the impression that it is James's book and that the Kyriakis examples are correct. Please feel free to enlighten me if I am wrong!
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Old 05-09-2008, 07:23 AM   #18
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kelsmom, you are correct with James (James's book) and Mr. Kyriakis's house. The home of all the Kyriakises together is the Kyriakises' house (possessive of the plural).

If you (or a character in the book) might be the sort to speak in a sort of old-world-flavored way, and/or those Kryiakises have owned that house since Moses was floating in the bullrushes, you could conceivably refer to it as "the Kyriakis house" - no apostrophe.
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Old 05-09-2008, 07:34 AM   #19
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Thanks everyone! I knew I could count on this board's members, or should I say, the members of this board?!!
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