<p>i read in one of their books that pronous like "It" must have clear antecedents, yet this rule is wrong in the blue book, such as this question.</p>
<p>pg 847</p>
<p>The <em>often conflicting</em> reports of different polling organizagions <em>make it difficult to</em> predict which of the two candidates <em>is</em> <em>more likely</em> to win the election next year.</p>
<p>so according to kaplan, <em>make it difficult</em> is wrong cause theres no antecedent for it. yet collegeboard says this is the idomatic usage. anyone confirm this?</p>
<p>The <em>often conflicting</em> reports of different polling organizagions <em>make the election difficult to</em> predict which of the two candidates <em>is</em> <em>more likely</em> to win the election next year.</p>
<p>what does "it" refer to? the organizations? reports? no and no. "IT" = the poll, election, or something. </p>
<p>edit: forget this. this is a horrible sentence....ditch kaplan now and follow xiggi method.</p>
<p>ok.. so when it is not used to refer to anything, then its ok. but if another pronoun is refering to somethign thats not stated in the setence, its wrong. correct?</p>