This has been bothering me...

kyledavid80
Sat, 12 Jul 2008 03:29:34 +0000

When the verb “to be” is used in the first person future indicative, the correct form is actually “shall.”



Just throwing this out there, but “shall” is not a form of “to be.” “Shall,” in addition to “will,” is a modal. English does not actually have a future tense in the morphological sense (it obviously does in the semantic sense), in that it doesn’t have a conjugated form to express the future. Instead, we use modals like “shall” and “will” (even present-participle construction going to).

Unless you’re being facetious, in which case you can ignore this linguistic banter. :)