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<p>I do not think people have any problem with consent, and I do not believe they do not find it tough. What people are having trouble with is holding two people in the same state to completely different standards. Logically, that makes people uncomfortable and back off.</p>
<p>The example in Post #1994 does hold two people in the same state to different standards. People instinctively get that dichotomy and go, “Huh?”</p>
<p>My one counsel sees all this as a way to get higher rape conviction stats using an act that has been occurring since alcohol and drugs were invented / discovered, i.e., drunk or high sex between two drunk or high parties. </p>
<p>He posited this scenario to me (paraphrased): </p>
<p>Mental capacity can be viewed, as a continuum ranging from totally able to make decisions to totally unable to make decisions. We could mark the continuum with a scale in descending numbers left to right from 100 (able to take decisions lucidly) to 0 (incapacitated). Each person is always somewhere along that graph. </p>
<p>Now, if two people VOLUNTARILY drink or do drugs together and both people, who each started out at 100 on the scale, are now both at 40 on the scale, and they have sex, why does charging one with rape make more sense over the other person, as both are functioning at the same mental capacity AND both got there on their OWN volition and no one forced anyone to drink or do drugs? </p>
<p>OK, let’s take this example above and say instead of two people who started at 100 and voluntarily and happily got to 40 on the scale, it is now two mentally-challenged adults who were born that way and they too are at 40 on the scale. However, they are at 40 all the time. And it turns out one night, these two mentally-challeged adults have sex, does it make sense to charge one with rape and not the other, as both are functioning at the mental capacity? </p>
<p>His answer: This happens all the time in hospitals for the mentally-challenged and no he knows have ever been charged with rape. If we are not charging one set of people functioning at 40 with rape, why are we instituting a policy to treat another set of people functioning at the same point on the scale differently? And remember, the adults in the initial example BOTH VOLUNTARILY got drunk or did drugs, there was no coercion, and both now have the same mental capacity as the people in the second example. </p>
<p>He continued: Now I bet you that people are going into say but if you get drunk and kill someone you will still get charged with a crime. Sounds like a good argument except that it turns out that both people were drunk, both voluntarily got drunk, and both ended up playing with a knife (both sets of prints are all over the knife and knife case) and one person stabbed the other person, while stumbling around, and no one has a clue what occurred. Is this sufficient enough to charge the one person with murder even though both parties test in the range of 2.2 blood alcohol level?</p>