<p>I think there’s a lot of confusion here about what the general California rape statute says. It does NOT say that sex without affirmative consent is rape. It says that nonmarital sex with a person is rape in seven specific circumstances (there is a difference section for marital rape): (1) mental disability or similar condition rendering the person incapable of legal consent, (2) accomplished against a person’s will by force, violence, duress, menace, or fear, (3) the person is drugged or intoxicated to the point of being unable to resist, and the accused knows or should know that (this is the one I quoted before), (4) the person is not conscious at all of the nature of the act (this includes the obvious passed-out victim, as well as some subtle things like women thinking they were having a gyn exam), (5) the accused has fraudulently pretended to be someone else in order to get the person to “submit”, (6) the act is accomplished against the person’s will because of a threat that the accused will cause harm to the person or someone else in the future (i.e., not an immediate threat of harm), and there is a reasonable possibility that the accused could carry out the threat, and (7) the accused threatens the person with arrest or similar official action.</p>
<p>The section on “consent,” which CF quoted, applies if consent is an affirmative defense to any of the foregoing, but consent is not independently an element of the crime, except maybe in (2), (6), and (7), where the act must be “against the will” of the victim. But if there is no force, duress, threat, or fraud (or similar), and the supposed victim is not effectively incapacitated, sex without consent is not rape.</p>
<p>I would need to do a bunch of research on case law to parse the subtleties of this statute, but a few things are pretty clear. In the case of drunk sex, if the victim is not unconscious or intoxicated to the point of being unable to resist, there has to be force, etc., for it to be rape. If the victim is conscious but unable to resist, and there is no force, etc., the prosecution would have to prove that a reasonable person would have known the victim was that drunk, but it would not be a defense for the accused to claim he was too drunk himself to be able to tell. What I don’t know is just how liberal courts are in interpreting “force” and similar words. Is undressing someone gently “force”? If so, then almost any sex without affirmative consent could be rape. If more is required to be “force”, then ambivalent sex would clearly not be rape. And the way the statute is structured, in those situations lack of consent would have to be proved beyond a reasonable doubt, which as a practical matter is probably more consistent with “no means no” than “yes means yes,” no matter what the defnition of consent.</p>