<p>but look,
1/3=0.333…is just approximation
you cannot define 1/3 using decimals, you can say that 1/3=.3333…with an absolute error (i think that’s how you call it) of ±1/oo (one over infinity), no? which is 0, or i’d better say, ALMOST 0</p>
<p>that’s why we can say that 1=.999… ± 1/oo , which is ALMOST equal</p>
<p>ok, arguing with Ben makes no sence b/c he definately knows more than i do, AND it could probably cost me admission to Caltech ;), but i still got some questions about this whole thing</p>
<p>i was tought that between any two real numbers there are infinite number of values, but the distance between those two numbers would be only one</p>
<p>by that i mean, that the distance between .9 and 1 is .1, but there are infinite number of values between them</p>
<p>the distance between .9999 and 1.0000 is .0001, but between them there are still infinite number of values.
that;s why i conlude that, although between .999…and 1.000…the distance is 0, there are still infinite number of values between them, right?
now, lets calculate the distance betwen .999…and one of those infinite number of values in between .999…and 1
then let’s calculate the distance between that point and another one, and then lets calculate the distance between the second point and 1
so, as i know, the distnce between .999…and first point (n1) would be
sqrt((n1-.999…)^2), the distnce between n1 and n2 would be sqrt((n2-n1)^2), and the distnce between n2 and 1 would be sqrt((1-n2)^2), so the total disatance between .999…and 1 would be
sqrt((n1-.999…)^2) + sqrt((n2-n1)^2) + sqrt((1-n2)^2) which can be equal to 0 only if 1=.999…=n1=n2, which is impossible because n1 and n2 were parts of the infinite number of values other than 1 or .999…</p>
<p>now…im not saying that .999…does not equal to 1, but rather im asking you to explain ^this^</p>
<p>As for Ben:
“At this point I have to run… I’ll try to think of the shortest proof I can that no real number has more than two decimial expansions. On the other hand, Hriundeli, if you haven’t finished calculus, I doubt the technical arguments about infinite series that would be involved would make much sense… perhaps it would be better for you to learn a little more… otherwise it would just be wasted time for you and me.”…</p>
<p>…hate to say it, but i think you are wrong…sry
i mean, sooner or later i WILL ask you for the proof, so, does it matter when you send it to me? So what if i dont know integrals or infinite series? i still can keep it untill i think i would be able to understand it…Besides, the presense of it would stimulate my learning
he-he</p>