<p>i believe its true for all values of n because the magnetude of the equation is 1 (the coefficient in front of the cos/sin is 1) i think. Ive never seen it written like that tho.</p>
<p>i believe its true for all values of n because the magnetude of the equation is 1 (the coefficient in front of the cos/sin is 1) i think. Ive never seen it written like that tho.</p>