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<p>I agree that given the political climate, it probably would be. But from a theoretical standpoint, just because a certain screening factor creates differential success rates among various groups does not, a priori, make the factor ‘racist’. </p>
<p>I think the problem hinges on what we mean by ‘racist’ or ‘prejudice’. As Thomas Sowell once said, if groups of people are treated differently based on true differences in characteristics, he would not call that racism. Neither would I. To give you a simple example, smokers tend to die at a younger age. Hence, when life insurance companies charge higher premiums to smokers, that’s not really ‘prejudice’, but rather differential treatment based on an actual observed characteristic - that because smokers tend to die young, insurance companies have to collect higher upfront premiums from them in order to fund their coverage. Now obviously not ALL smokers die young, and it is true that those particular smokers who don’t die young and yet are charged high premiums anyway are subject to a windfall loss, just like a nonsmoker that dies young yet paid low premiums earned a windfall gain. But these windfall gains and losses are also not really ‘prejuice’, but rather a consequence of the uncertainty of statistical sampling. </p>
<p>You can apply the same thing to gender. Let’s face it. Men’s bodies and women’s bodies are different, and so are their tastes in fashion. Hence, a man’s pair of jeans are going to be cut differently from a woman’s jeans. I would hardly call it ‘sexist’ for the garment industry to offer different designs to men and women. Similarly, the cosmetics industry advertises primarily to women, because the vast majority of cosmetics are obviously worn by women, not men. When I walk into a boutique with my girlfriend and the makeup lady wants to talk to her, but not me, is that sexist? No, I think that’s exactly what should happen, because I don’t want to buy makeup and so I don’t want to talk to a makeup lady.</p>
<p>Now, getting to race, again, certain races tend to perform better at certain things, mostly due to inherent interest in the activity. Let’s face it. Most NBA players are African-American. That may reflect some genetic component, but also reflects strong cultural predilictions as well - as numerous African-American young boys will spend hours and hours practicing basketball. When all these kids are honing their skills, you will inevitably come up with a few who are NBA-worthy. In contrast, Asian-American kids almost never emphasize basketball to that extreme. Similarly, if you look at world soccer, far far more Brazilians are playing in the top professional leagues than there are Chinese or Indians, despite the fact that there are more than 10 times of Chinese/Indians in the world than there are Brazilians. In fact, heck, I don’t even think there is a single Chinese or Indian player in any of the world’s top pro soccer leagues. Indian athletes, on the other hand, are extremely strong in professional cricket, yet very few Brazilians are. Again, it all reflects the particular cultural attitudes of a group of people. Brazilians as a culture greatly prize soccer skills, and many young Brazilians practice soccer day in, day out. I’m sure if the Chinese and Indians were to prize soccer as much as Brazil does, then they would also have plenty of top pro players. But they don’t. So that doesn’t mean that when FC Barcelona or Arsenal or Manchester United offers contracts to Brazilian players but not Chinese players, that that is evidence of ‘racism’ against the Chinese. </p>
<p>So let’s take it to the realm of academics. The top-scoring ethnic group in US standardized tests are not whites, they are Asian-Americans, and especially Chinese-Americans. So does that mean that those tests are ‘racist’ against whites? How could that be? Chinese-Americans don’t hold significant political power, and certainly don’t have the power to enforce a ‘racist’ standard. And it’s not just Chinese-Americans we’re talking about. Chinese-Canadians, Chinese-Australians, Chinese-British, Chinese-Malaysians, Chinese-Thais, and most other Chinese expatriate groups tend to perform better than the native population in whatever academic exam is used in those particular countries. So does that mean that all of these national exams are biased against their own native people and in favor of the Chinese? How could that be? With the exception of Singapore, none of the Chinese expatriate groups hold ruling political power in any of the countries they are in. The Malays have always held dominant political power in Malaysia ever since independence, yet the Chinese have always tended to perform better academically than the Malays have. So does that mean that the educational system of Malaysia is ‘racist’ against Malays? How is that possible when it is the Malays themselves who hold ultimate power over that system? Why would the Malays want to be racist against themselves? </p>
<p>The truth is, the Chinese expatriate community is one that highly prizes education and academic achievement. Hence, I would hardly call it ‘racist’ when you note that children of Chinese immigrants tend to perform well academically. In fact, any exam SHOULD reflect this, to the point that it would actually be racist for the exam NOT to reflect it. I think anybody who has observed American education has noted the high performance levels of Chinese-Americans.</p>
<p>But the point is, differential performances amongst different groups has been a fact of life throughout world history. I doubt there has been a single time in history when all groups in a particular society performed at the same level in all activities. For example, if you want to study ancient Western philosophy, you inevitably end up talking about a lot of Greek philosophers. There was no great philosophy being created in, say, the British Isles in ancient times. If you want to talk about ancient Eastern philosophy, you inevitably end up talking about a bunch of Chinese and Indian philosophers like Confucius and Buddha. There were no great philosophers coming out of, say, Southeast Asia, in ancient times. </p>
<p>What should make you feel better is that the locus of strength changes. Ancient Greek philosophy was momentous, but frankly, Greece produced few great philosophers since ancient times. During the 1700’s, the the top Western philosophy group were the French (when,before, France was never really known for philosophy) and then, in modern times, the Germans. Sure, you also had some Dutch, some Brits, some Central Europeans, and even a few Americans. But the point is, the locus of performance can change through time. The peak of Greek intellectual life was around 400 BC, and Greece has never been able to approach that pinnacle since.</p>