A mathematical interlude

College Confidential Community
1

<p>Let us prove that there are an infinite number of primes. Imagine that there were a finite number of primes. Take the number z such that z=all of the primes multiplied by each other. Consider z+1. z+1 cannot be divisible by any of the primes, but by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, every number has a unique prime decomposition. Ergo, z+1 is only divisible by z+1 and 1. It must be prime!</p>

<p>CONTRADITION</p>

<p>QED</p>

2

<p>You are wrong. It need not be prime. Only have a prime divisor that is not included in p<em>1 to p</em>n…</p>