<p>Why did the U.S. send more money to Britain/France (allied nations) than Germany/Italy (axis nations) for the marshall plan?</p>
<p>Er, wasn’t that 'cause Greece was under invasion by communist forces or something?</p>
<p>The Marshall plan was AFTER WW2, the money was not sent to any Axis nations. It was offered by all countries to spur economic development but the entire communist bloc refused it (they saw it as capitalist) but all of Western Europe. That in turn, helped their economy and made communism less tempting to the populace.</p>
<p>Oh yes, if you are referring to the the Lend-Lease act or Bonds or something along that line. We gave money in WW2 because we naturally traded with them more and had a closer cultural bond to them. In addition, the Popular Front put us against fascism partly due to the Spanish-American civil war.</p>
<p><em>sorry for the double post</em> I If your question was pertaining to WW2, this second answer may prove more useful.</p>