Critical Reading Question

<p>Passage:</p>

<p>By the standards of the day, feminism was very powerful in New York
City at the end of the Second World War in 1945—the phrase “male chauvinist” had
already been used there. New York women were famously independent, and
famously “smart.” Taverns still sometimes declined to serve them, it was
true, but even that resilient prejudice had been weakened by the pressures of
Prohibition*, and it was many long years since the actress Lily Langtry, refused ale
and a mutton chop at Keen’s chophouse, had taken the management to court, and
won. Innumerable women’s organizations sustained this liberty, bolstered the sense
of feminine power, provided cultural uplift, offered professional support, or fulfilled
charitable leanings.</p>

<p>Question:</p>

<ol>
<li>The author of the passage implies which of the
following about the term “male chauvinist”?
(A) That it was first used in New York
(B) That it was first used in 1945
(C) That its use was common only among collegeeducated
women
(D) That its use was associated with the Second
World War
(E) That its use became common outside New York
after 1945</li>
</ol>

<p>The answer is E and I don’t see any evidence in the passage of it. Can anyone please explain?</p>

<p>

</p>

<p>It says that it “had already been used there” by 1945 which means that elsewhere, it hadn’t been used at that time. This also suggests that post 1945, it was commonplace since pre-1945 only New Yorkers were using the term.</p>

<p>If it’s still not very clear, let’s look at the other choices:
(A) That it was first used in New York **it wasn’t heavily used elsewhere but no where does it state that it originated from NY<a href=“B”>/B</a> That it was first used in 1945 ** the excerpt tells us the opposite. it tells us that by 1945, it was already being used by new yorkers<a href=“C”>/B</a> That its use was common only among collegeeducated
women **the passage only mentions women in general, so this choice is out<a href=“D”>/B</a> That its use was associated with the Second
World War **even without reading the passage, you know that this can’t be the answer<a href=“E”>/B</a> That its use became common outside New York
after 1945 this is the answer because it’s all that’s left and it makes sense in context with the passage (to me, at least)</p>

<p>i hope this helps, sorry if its a bit unclear</p>

<p>Basically, eliminate B C D because they hardly receive any support at all. Now, if you look at the first sentence, “By the standards of the day, feminism was very powerful in New York
City at the end of the Second World War in 1945—the phrase “male chauvinist” had
already been used there.”, the author says that feminism was “very powerful in new york” (implication that its more powerful than elsewhere and that the “elsewhere” is yet to catch up with the usage of the phrase). Also, the second part says “the phrase “male chauvinist” had already been used there”. This implies that the usage of the phrase is a result or effect of the power of feminism. Also, it implies that in other places, the term “has not been used” yet. </p>

<p>I think its very tricky to decide between A and E. But if you really look into what the guy is saying, you can see that A is not necessarily true.</p>

<p>P.S. Next time, just post a question and dont provide the answer. Makes it more fair and fun to respond ;)</p>

<p>In the first sentence it says that feminism was extraordinarily strong at the end of WWII.
This fact is reinforced by the statement that the term “male chauvinist” had been “already” used in NY.
An important fact to know is that the term “male chauvinist” describes an anti-feminist man.
So, the reader may infer that because feminism was not widespread over the country in 1945, the term “male chauvinist” was not common at that time outside New York.
It is also implied that feminism became stronger after 1945 (and thus made the aforementioned term common) by the part of the first sentence saying “by the standards of the day”. The standards were true only around 1945; if compared with later instances of feminism NY feminism wouldn’t be deemed as powerful which suggests that later at time (or after 1945) feminism grew more powerful and the term “male chauvinist” became common.
I think I haven’t explained this very well but I hope this helps.</p>

<p>Here’s how you explicitly state what the author “implies”:</p>

<p>The term “male chauvinist” seems to be a popular used term all around the world. However, it had already been used, in New York, over 50 years ago.</p>

<p>Thanks a lot for the help guys! It really did help a lot. Also if I have different questions should I make new threads or should I just continue to post on this thread?</p>

<p>continue to post in this thread</p>

<p>This came to me pretty obvious (for some odd reason). E jumped at me although I still went through the other answers and eliminated to be safe.</p>

<p>By the standards of the day, feminism was very powerful in New York
City at the end of the Second World War in 1945—the phrase “male chauvinist” had
already been used there
. New York women were famously independent, and
famously “smart.” </p>

<p>Look at the bold, it said the term had already been used there. That means that the phrase was known somewhere else. It’s hard to explain but if you say something’s been done there already then you get the feeling that it’s been done elsewhere too. </p>

<p>To make it clearer, think of it this way: While the term was being brought to other places, there’s emphasis that it had ALREADY BEEN USED HERE. This might seem to implicate that it originated in New York but it only tells us that it went to New York prior (not first) to going to other places.</p>

<p>Once again, you are gonna get a lot of impure explanations (the impurity is caused by a subconcious bias toward E :wink: ). Since you provided the answer, everyone is going to try to explain why E is the right answer, not why E is the answer, if you know what I mean. :wink: Next time, just throw the question out there without answers !!!</p>

<p>I agree with the above poster… but i didn’t read the thread past the question prior to figuring the answer out =D</p>

<ol>
<li>I didnt refer to your reply in particular</li>
<li>The post with the question contained the answer!!!</li>
<li>I dont somehow consider my explanation as being “unbiased” :wink: It is there with the rest of them.</li>
</ol>

<p>Funny. I was just doing this passage earlier in the day…</p>

<p>My intuition told my that E was the right answer, but I almost picked incorrectly. Answers C and D were completely ridiculous, so I eliminated both immediately. A and B I didn’t cross out immediately because they had a chance of being correct, but after closer inspection, it was clear that both of them are unsupported by the passage. I didn’t really reason to myself why E was correct. I just knew that it was the only choice that even had a chance of being correct after finding that the others were wrong for sure.</p>