<p>I’m reading AMSCO for APUSH right now and this doesn’t seem to make sense (period during the American Rev.; about the alliance with France):</p>
<p>Louis XVI had no interest in aiding a revolutionary movement. Nevertheless, the French king believe that he could weak his country’s traditional foe, Great Britain, by helping to undermine its colonial empire. France had secretly extended aid to the American revolutionaies as early as 1775, giving both money and supplies. </p>
<p>Is the colonial empire Great Britain? Why did Louis XVI have no interest in aiding the revolutionary movement when he wanted to help the colonies (revolutionists)</p>
<p>^ I think the book is right. Louis XVI did not actually have an intention to help out the colonies. He ONLY HELPED THE COLONIES OUT because he thought that by helping the colonies declare independence, it will consequently weaken their rival country, Great Britain. That’s why the French were reluctant to help the Americans first. They only change their mind after the battle at Saratoga, where the Americans had their first victory against the British… </p>
<p>p.s: since you’re having trouble with main concepts, I would suggest the princeton review.</p>
<p>Also remember that France was under a monarchy similar to Britain in its oppressiveness. They weren’t helping the colonies for the ideals of freedom and liberty, they just wanted to weaken Britain, like schoolgirl said. France would later have their own revolution.</p>