<p>I’m not a real estate expert, just an interested observer. </p>
<p>Here’s a start to an answer to your questions:</p>
<p>What everyone calls a mortgage actually has two components: the note, which is the borrower IOU, and the mortgage (in some states, it’s called a deed of trust) which is the lien on the property. In 45 states, the mortgage is a mere accessory to the note; you must be the real party of interest in the note in order to foreclose.</p>
<p>The pooling and servicing agreement, which governs who does what when in a mortgage securitization, requires the note to be endorsed (just like a check, signed by one party over to the next), showing the full chain of title, and the minimum conveyance chain is A (originator) => B (sponsor) => C (depositor) => D (trust). The endorsements also have to be wet ink; no electronic signatures permitted.</p>
<p>It seems that in many cases for mortgages initiated in the past several years, the note has been lost or deliberately destroyed. In addition, in private label deals (meaning non Freddie and Fannie), it appears instead that the notes are back with the originator, never endorsed as required in the pooling and servicing agreement. This means that when the originator sold the mortgage, it was done using an affidavit of lost note. This is essentially a sworn statement that says, “we own this debt, but we can’t find any paperwork to prove it, so please just take our word for it”.</p>
<p>What’s happening with houses that are being foreclosed is that many lenders are routinely including a document that re-establishes the note, which states that the original note has either been lost or destroyed. In other words, they’re admitting that they don’t have the note that proves they have a right to foreclose. One problem with this is that there’s a possibility that another institution up the chain of securitization will also try to collect on the same debt in the same manner.</p>
<p>Some judges are starting to hold banks to the letter of the law, forcing them to produce the original note. From what I’ve read, people who have already purchased a house that was foreclosed without the original documents are unlikely to lose their house retroactively (the article linked below has a different opinion).</p>
<p>So far it seems that title insurance rates haven’t skyrocketed, but it’s hard to imagine why they wouldn’t.</p>
<p>You’re asking some really good questions - I’ll be interested to hear what the experts say.</p>