<p>I'm having a hard time understanding the logic behind schools that meet full demonstrated need, but do it with all grants for lower-income kids, and with more loans for middle-income kids.</p>
<p>As a middle-income family, not only are we asked to make a family contribution that will be a major stretch for us, but then the aid package includes 7500/year in loans for S. (This is in addition to a reasonable student contribution and employment income expectation.)</p>
<p>Lower-income students get all their need met via grants from the same school (and of course lower family contributions).</p>
<p>Considering that our family contribution is already a stretch for us, and we have two more college-bound kids coming up behing him, we will not be helping S pay back his loans when he graduates. He will be just as low-income (or not) as others graduating in his major. So why is he expected to take on loans when other students are not?</p>
<p>I don't mean for this to come off sounding bitter, because I'm really grateful for the aid he was given, that will make his first choice school a reality for him. And I don't mind that he has some skin in the game at all. I'm just really wondering what the logic here is. Why aren't kids from low-income families expected to take on any loans (at those schools that have similar policies)? These are top colleges that have these policies -- isn't the expectation that all kids graduating from such a school will have the means to pay back some loans?</p>