<p>So, think of financial aid at Ivy league schools. Pretty good according to [FinAid</a> | Answering Your Questions | No Loans for Low Income Students](<a href=“http://www.finaid.org/questions/noloansforlowincome.phtml]FinAid”>http://www.finaid.org/questions/noloansforlowincome.phtml), right? I’ve heard of kids getting out of an ivy league with no debt en masse. </p>
<p>How come the best of the best of the best (1% approximately) students , who are consistently the wealthies students in america, at the best of the best of the best (1% approximately) colleges get such amazing financial aid oppertunities? Do they even need it in the first place? </p>
<p>Does it make sense that students whose families earn under 10,000 a year get an average SAT score of 1313 vs. students whose families earn over 100,000 a year, 1656 on SAT?</p>
<p>Based on that statistic, where is that poor boy or girl going to get an education (assuming he/she will even get an education)? Will she go to Yale where she knows most of her tuition will be paid for? No, because her family was poor, and more than likely she grew up in a poor neighborhood with a poor school, which offers no SAT prep course (unlike affluent upperclass schools which pamper their students because they have $$$$) offers no AP classes, and does not adequately prepare one for college.</p>
<p>Does it make sense that the students who dont need aid will most likely have all the aid they need? Does it make sense that those who need aid (which is the major, not the minority) will not get all they need versus the 1% who got all they needed and then some?</p>
<p>In reality, I do know why this terrible cycle is perpetuated: stratification. but I want to stimulate some kind of discussion.</p>