<p>Question:</p>
<p>Is it equitable to make somebody poor pay more for something he values more highly than the richer person?</p>
<p>Sometimes price is determined by value. Thus if the greater value is placed by the poor person then likely that poor person would be willing to pay more. I am not sure if you actually wrote what you intended to say.</p>
<p>To the OP, are you thinking about a particular example or is this a hypothetical?</p>
<p>Hypothetical. Say poor person values Item A at 300 bucks and the rich guy values it at 50, but the poor person cannot buy the Item alone and so taxes are needed to fund it.</p>
<p>Value and price are not always the same. You mention value and then inability of the poor buyer to execute a purchase. A poor buyer may consider an item “priceless” and that would not be the price…</p>
<p>Well I may be willing to pay 50 bucks for something but I’m more willing to pay 30.</p>
<p>If obtaining the item is based on paying more than any other buyer then you would lose or change what you are willing to pay…</p>