writing section.. ohhh yeahhhh (silverturtle)

Test Preparation SAT Preparation
1

<p>Q1. How do I know if “whereby” is used correctly? What does it translate to? Is there a word that I can plug in “whereby’s” place? </p>

<hr>

<p>Q2. I know neither…nor and either…or. but whhat if neither either nor neither are used? then how do you know when to use “or” or “nor” ? LOL I’m sorry for all the confusion in the previous sentence :D</p>

<p>“current united states law does not allow companies to sell names of customers [or otherwise to profit] from circulating customer lists.”
^correct</p>

<h2>There were other options that had “nor” but none had the correct “to profit” infinitive. Would “nor otherwise to profit” work? </h2>

<p>[Mohandas Ghandhi greatly influenced many later reformers,] including the american civil rights leader MLK</p>

<p>[Mohandas Ghandhi’s influence has been great on many later reformers,] including the american civil rights leader MLK</p>

<h2>Q3. first is correct. i couldn’t find any grammar justifications for the first. is it simply because it is “active” voice? just making sure</h2>

<p>Q4. </p>

<p>Christopher Columbus was an Italian, but many people [assume him as a] Spanish subject.</p>

<h2>is assume…as wrong? </h2>

<p>as a revolutionary reformer, cesar chavez was instrumental in organizing farm workers, and it was [him] who led their struggle.</p>

<p>Why is him wrong? I was sort of torn because I know that (1) objects receive the verb, thus making “him” correct, and (2) subjects do the verb, which makes “he” correct. </p>

<p>(1) WAS him (received was)</p>

<h2>(2) he who LED (did the action)</h2>

<p>Effective with
Preferable over</p>

<p>both are wrong. what’s the correct one? effective in and preferable to?</p>

2

<p>Lol,I think silverturtle just got owned…:(</p>

3

<p>It was he
it was i</p>

<p>whenever you use passive voice verb, the noun that follows must be in subject form.</p>

4

<ol>
<li><p>There’s no word that could be used 100% of the time, but generally “by which” or “through which” will serve you well.</p></li>
<li><p>This one is tricky, but here is a good way of looking at it. Although there are other possibilities, you can’t go wrong if you use nor only after the word neither: instead of “Keats did not write novels nor essays,” use either “Keats did not write novels or essays” or “Keats wrote neither novels nor essays.” (You can, however, say “Keats did not write novels, nor did he write essays.”)</p></li>
</ol>

<p>From what I gather, you use or for nouns: Katie does not drink scotch or soda, and you use nor for verbs: Katie does not drink scotch, nor does she drink soda.</p>

<ol>
<li>The second choice is wrong because of a misplaced prepositional phrase. Were it to read, “[Mohandas Ghandhi’s influence on many later reformers, including the american civil rights leader MLK, has been great,” then it would be correct.</li>
</ol>

<p>Unfortunately, I cannot really think of a rule to explain this. I know that it’s wrong, and in my head I know why, but I cannot find a way to illustrate my reasoning to you.</p>

<ol>
<li><p>“Assume as” is indeed wrong. A better alternative would be “assume that”. In this case, it is also wrong because it is in the present tense (should be past).</p></li>
<li><p>Was is a linking verb, therefore making the recipient of its action (he/him) a predicate nominative, which requires the subjective form (he) rather than the objective form (him).</p></li>
<li><p>Effective could be used with any number of different prepositions depending on the context, but “preferable to” will nearly always be the best option.</p></li>
</ol>

5

<p>thanks menarius. i appreciate it.</p>

<p>silverturtle - if you could still offer some insight (or clarify some things) that would be cool</p>