<p>Intrigue at Downton Abbey? Bedroom politics involving Henry Plagetnet and Katherine of Aragon? Oooh, I am all a-twitter. I love this stuff.</p>
<p>I was under the impression that Mrs. Hughes knows who the rapist is? Didn’t Anna tell her, but swore her to secrecy?</p>
<p>I too thought Mrs. Hughes knows who the rapist is.</p>
<p>Fellowes doesn’t seem to see silliness as a reason to rule out plot devices. If he’ll use amnesia of a lost heir, he’ll use anything.</p>
<p>Why did Tony Gillingham say he had to decide whom to marry right away? Did it have something to do with the estate? I couldn’t quite hear his explanation.</p>
<p>I doubt very much that the Gillingham and Mary storyline is finished. They’ll find a way to bring him back and carry on with this again, I have no doubt. </p>
<p>I have a feeling that Bates will find out who attacked Anna, although I don’t know how that will happen. I wouldn’t be at all surprised if Anna confides in someone in addition to Mrs. Hughes, and that it somehow makes its way back to Bates.</p>
<p>roshke, I believe it’s because he’s been “practically engaged” to her for quite some time, and according to the etiquette of the time, he’s either got to move forward or move back at this point.</p>
<p>I think the reason Tony Gillingham needs to marry is financial. He talked to Mary about death taxes, they are quite hefty and the costs of maintaining the family estate are large. He’s made comments that he had to rent out the family home to keep the family lands. He also made the comment that he doesn’t really like his valet but he is all he can afford at the time. </p>
<p>He also traveled 3rd class to Downton when Mary traveled 1st. He said it was because he didn’t want to talk to Mary but I suspect it’s because he couldn’t afford to travel 1st class. I also think money was the reason he didn’t bring his valet. </p>
<p>Mary is now a great heiress and therefore in great demand. The same reason Tony has to marry is the same reason Lord Grantham had to marry an American.</p>
<p>My hunch is the valet is that there will be a party at some other great house and someone from Downton will go. There will be a rape or attempted rape by the same valet and this one won’t be kept quiet. Maybe not followed up on in court but known. When Bates hears about it he will put 2 and 2 together.</p>
<p>BTW, </p>
<p>I’m really confused by one thing. Lord Grantham couldn’t leave that estate to his daughters because it was entailed. That’s how Matthew ended up the heir. Now Matthew by will leaves his share of the estate to Mary. How can he do it if Lord Grantham couldn’t?If it’s entailed, it has to go to his son.</p>
<p>What’s “entailed” mean?</p>
<p>:Head bang:
[The</a> Entail,Primogeniture, and Why Matthew Inherits Downton Abbey | Pints of History](<a href=“http://pintsofhistory.com/2013/02/28/the-entail-primogeniture-and-why-matthew-or-his-son-inherits-downton-abbey/]The”>The "Entail," Primogeniture, and Why Matthew Inherits Downton Abbey - Pints of History)</p>
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<p>Hi new to this thread but not new to Downton 
When Matthew wrote the letter (will) they didn’t have a baby yet so that might be how they get away with Mary inheriting?</p>
<p>Because its television and they can take creative liberties.</p>
<p>No because Matthews inheritance is from Lavinia and is not entailed. But George’s position as Grantham’s heir is entailed. Matthew had not inherited anything from the Grantham estate because the earl is still alive. But what he inherited from Lavinia is his alone and he could will it to whomever he wanted. It’s doesn’t matter that he promised it to help Downton, it’s his to do as he wanted. </p>
<p>When the earl and countess married, her inheritance was bound to the entail (that is the estate) and not to the Earl or the Countess, which is why none of the daughters could inherit any of her money. As she was the one with the money, the Earl had the property and that could not be inherited by the daughters.</p>
<p>Oh yes, the fortune from Lavinia! That’s what saved the whole bloody mess. It’s a gift that just keeps giving!</p>
<p>Thanks, Deb! Now it makes sense!!!</p>
<p>deb22, correct, except that I believe Matthew’s inheritance was technically from Lavinia’s father, wasn’t it?</p>
<p>Correct Consolation! I was afraid I was clear as mud with my explanation and hated to bring up one more layer. But that is correct. Even though Lavinia was already dead, the father had no other heirs and decided to give his money to Matthew.</p>
<p>I love Downton, and remember watching Upstairs, Downstairs as a teen with my parents. My daughter will have nothing to do with it. No interest….I’m kind of disappointed!</p>